Polity MCQs for UPSC Prelims
Q1. The 'right of publicity', as recognised by Indian courts within the wider bundle of personality rights, is best understood as which one of the following?
- A. The right of a person to control commercial exploitation of attributes such as name, image, voice and persona, built by courts in the absence of a dedicated statute
- B. The right of a person to restrain publication of any material concerning them, including truthful reporting on matters of public interest, once objection is raised
- C. A right expressly conferred on every individual by the Copyright Act, 1957 over photographs and recordings in which their likeness or voice appears
- D. The right of a performer to receive royalties whenever a recording of their performance is broadcast or communicated to the public
Q2. The principal body through which the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways develops and maintains national highways was constituted under which one of the following?
- A. The National Highways Authority of India Act, 1988
- B. The National Highways Act, 1956
- C. The Control of National Highways (Land and Traffic) Act, 2002
- D. The Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
Q3. Following the replacement of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, the offence of defamation is now contained in which provision?
- A. Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
- B. Section 351 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
- C. Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
- D. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000
Q4. Where defamation is prosecuted as a criminal offence in India today, what is the maximum term of simple imprisonment that may be imposed?
- A. One year
- B. Two years
- C. Three years
- D. Seven years
Q5. Apart from judicial remedies, the executive framework that requires platforms hosting deepfake content to observe due diligence and to label synthetic content is notified and administered by which one of the following?
- A. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
- B. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
- C. Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre, Ministry of Home Affairs
- D. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India, Department of Telecommunications
Q6. In the suit filed before the Bombay High Court, several defendants are described as 'unknown persons'. Such impleadment, commonly called a John Doe (or Ashok Kumar) action, means which one of the following?
- A. Relief is sought against unidentified wrongdoers, so that orders can operate against persons whose identity is ascertained later
- B. Relief is sought against every intermediary operating in India, since anonymous accounts can never be traced to any identifiable person
- C. Proceedings are conducted entirely in camera, and the identity of the plaintiff is permanently withheld from all defendants
- D. The court appoints an officer to represent the entire class of internet users, whose consent binds all of them absolutely
Q7. Which one of the following correctly describes a 'significant social media intermediary' for the purposes of the IT Rules, 2021?
- A. A social media intermediary whose number of registered users in India exceeds the threshold of fifty lakh notified by the central government
- B. A social media intermediary whose annual turnover from Indian operations exceeds the threshold of five hundred crore rupees notified by the central government
- C. A social media intermediary whose registered users worldwide exceed the threshold of fifty crore notified by the central government
- D. A social media intermediary that carries paid political advertising and is registered with the Election Commission of India
Q8. Consider the following statements comparing the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 as originally notified with their subsequent amendment:
1. As originally notified, the Rules required an intermediary's Grievance Officer to acknowledge a complaint within twenty-four hours and dispose of it within fifteen days of receipt.
2. The amendment reduced, from fifteen days to seventy-two hours, the time for acting on complaints seeking removal of specified categories of prohibited content.
3. The amendment set up Grievance Appellate Committees to hear appeals filed by publishers of online curated content against orders of the self-regulatory bodies of publishers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- As originally notified, the Rules required an intermediary's Grievance Officer to acknowledge a complaint within twenty-four hours and dispose of it within fifteen days of receipt.
- The amendment reduced, from fifteen days to seventy-two hours, the time for acting on complaints seeking removal of specified categories of prohibited content.
- The amendment set up Grievance Appellate Committees to hear appeals filed by publishers of online curated content against orders of the self-regulatory bodies of publishers.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q9. What is the approximate present cadre strength of the Indian Foreign Service, and roughly how many Indian Missions and Posts abroad does it man?
- A. About 450 officers, manning around 160 Indian Missions and Posts abroad
- B. About 600 officers, manning around 120 Indian Missions and Posts abroad
- C. About 850 officers, manning around 193 Indian Missions and Posts abroad
- D. About 1,200 officers, manning around 210 Indian Missions and Posts abroad
Q10. The names of individuals declared terrorists under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 — as in the July 2026 listing of Pakistan-based operatives — are entered in which one of the following?
- A. The First Schedule to the Act, which carries the list of declared terrorist organisations
- B. The Fourth Schedule to the Act, a listing power introduced by the 2019 amendment
- C. The Second Schedule to the Act, which carries the procedure for review by a tribunal
- D. The Third Schedule to the Act, which carries the forms for attachment of terror proceeds
Q11. Under which one of the following provisions of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 may the Central Government notify the name of an individual believed to be involved in terrorism?
- A. Section 3, under which any association may be declared unlawful permanently and for all purposes
- B. Section 15, which defines a terrorist act and thereby lists every person accused of it
- C. Section 25, which permits attachment of all proceeds of terrorism without any judicial oversight
- D. Section 35, which empowers the Centre to add such a name to a Schedule of the Act
Q12. The Supreme Court Bench that on 27 July 2026 heard pleas seeking uniform nationwide guidelines permitting peaceful protests was headed by which one of the following?
- A. Justice Joymalya Bagchi, sitting with two companion judges of the Court
- B. Chief Justice Surya Kant, sitting with two companion judges of the Court
- C. Justice V. Mohana, sitting with two companion judges of the Court
- D. Justice B. R. Gavai, sitting with two companion judges of the Court
Q13. Which of the following are correctly identified in respect of the 2026 Jantar Mantar student agitation in Delhi?
1. It began on 6 June 2026 against repeated question-paper leaks in entrance and recruitment examinations.
2. Student organisations including SFI, AISA and NSUI were associated with the agitation.
3. Activist Sonam Wangchuk joined the agitation with an indefinite hunger strike on 28 June 2026.
4. It was called off on 25 July 2026 after the Centre accepted all three of the key demands raised by its organisers.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- It began on 6 June 2026 against repeated question-paper leaks in entrance and recruitment examinations.
- Student organisations including SFI, AISA and NSUI were associated with the agitation.
- Activist Sonam Wangchuk joined the agitation with an indefinite hunger strike on 28 June 2026.
- It was called off on 25 July 2026 after the Centre accepted all three of the key demands raised by its organisers.
- A. 1, 2 and 3
- B. 2, 3 and 4
- C. 1 and 4 only
- D. 1, 3 and 4
Q14. The Media Centre of the Ministry of External Affairs, through which the Official Spokesperson conducts press briefings, functions under which one of the following divisions of the Ministry?
- A. The Policy Planning and Research Division, headed by a Joint Secretary
- B. The External Publicity and Public Diplomacy Division, headed by a Joint Secretary
- C. The Consular, Passport and Visa Division, headed by a Joint Secretary
- D. The Development Partnership Administration Division, headed by a Joint Secretary
Q15. Agreements for setting up Centres of Excellence in the Amaravati Quantum Valley are entered into on behalf of the State by which one of the following departments of the Government of Andhra Pradesh?
- A. The Department of Health, Medical and Family Welfare, which handles biomedical technology tie-ups
- B. The Department of Industries and Commerce, which administers industrial park allotments
- C. The Information Technology, Electronics and Communications Department, headed by its own Cabinet Minister
- D. The Department of Higher Education, which coordinates university-linked research facilities
Q16. With reference to the integrated genomic solutions centre for precision oncology announced in July 2026, which one of the following statements is correct?
- A. It is being implemented by the Centre for Development of Telematics under a Centre of Excellence agreement with the State's ITE&C Department.
- B. It is being set up entirely by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India, as a central sector project with no State participation whatsoever.
- C. It is being executed exclusively by Andhra Pradesh MedTech Zone Ltd., the sole implementing agency for every genomics project in the State.
- D. It is being set up under a Memorandum of Understanding signed by the Government of Andhra Pradesh with AstraZeneca India.
Q17. Consider the following statements comparing the present position of Scheduled Caste status with its earlier position:
1. As originally promulgated, the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 confined Scheduled Caste status to persons professing the Hindu religion; Sikhs were brought within its scope in 1956 and Buddhists in 1990.
2. Converts from Scheduled Castes to Christianity are included in the Central List of Other Backward Classes of some States and are entitled to reservation in Central Government services.
3. Since Scheduled Caste status operates in a religion-neutral manner, every person subjected to untouchability-based discrimination is entitled to be deemed a member of a Scheduled Caste, irrespective of the religion professed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- As originally promulgated, the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 confined Scheduled Caste status to persons professing the Hindu religion; Sikhs were brought within its scope in 1956 and Buddhists in 1990.
- Converts from Scheduled Castes to Christianity are included in the Central List of Other Backward Classes of some States and are entitled to reservation in Central Government services.
- Since Scheduled Caste status operates in a religion-neutral manner, every person subjected to untouchability-based discrimination is entitled to be deemed a member of a Scheduled Caste, irrespective of the religion professed.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q18. The Supreme Court's March 2026 judgment holding that a Scheduled Caste person who converts to Christianity ceases to be a member of a Scheduled Caste arose out of proceedings decided by which one of the following High Courts?
- A. The Madras High Court, before which claims of Dalit Christians have frequently been agitated
- B. The Kerala High Court, which exercises jurisdiction over a State with a large Christian population
- C. The Andhra Pradesh High Court, whose decision was challenged by the appellant before the Supreme Court
- D. The Telangana High Court, which was bifurcated from the erstwhile common High Court in 2019
Q19. Consider the following propositions about the Supreme Court's 2026 pronouncements on Scheduled Caste status and religious conversion:
1. A person professing a religion other than Hinduism, Sikhism or Buddhism cannot be deemed to be a member of a Scheduled Caste.
2. The Court described the bar in paragraph 3 of the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 as categorical and absolute.
3. The review petition against the Court's March 2026 judgment was allowed and the question was referred to a larger Bench.
4. Loss of Scheduled Caste status on conversion takes effect only after the convert has practised the new faith continuously for ten years.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- A person professing a religion other than Hinduism, Sikhism or Buddhism cannot be deemed to be a member of a Scheduled Caste.
- The Court described the bar in paragraph 3 of the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 as categorical and absolute.
- The review petition against the Court's March 2026 judgment was allowed and the question was referred to a larger Bench.
- Loss of Scheduled Caste status on conversion takes effect only after the convert has practised the new faith continuously for ten years.
- A. 1 and 2
- B. 2 and 3
- C. 1, 3 and 4
- D. 3 and 4 only
Q20. In the Commissions of Inquiry Act, 1952, the principal enabling provision under which a Commission of Inquiry is appointed to inquire into a definite matter of public importance is contained in which one of the following sections?
- A. Section 3
- B. Section 4
- C. Section 5
- D. Section 8B
Q21. Once a caste has been notified as a Scheduled Caste in relation to a State, which one of the following authorities alone can include a further caste in, or exclude a caste from, that notified list?
- A. Parliament, by law, which may include in or exclude from the notified list any caste, race or tribe
- B. The President, by a subsequent public notification issued after consultation with the Governor of the State concerned
- C. The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, by gazette notification issued with the concurrence of the Registrar General of India
- D. The Legislature of the State concerned, by law, subject to the assent of the President being obtained thereto
Q22. Which one of the following most precisely describes the power conferred on the President by clause (1) of Article 341 of the Constitution of India?
- A. To specify the castes, races or tribes deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to a State or Union Territory, subject to the prior concurrence of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
- B. To specify the castes, races or tribes deemed to be Scheduled Castes for the whole of India by a single notification applying uniformly to every State and Union Territory
- C. To specify by public notification the castes, races or tribes deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to a State or Union Territory, after consultation with the Governor where a State is concerned
- D. To specify the castes, races or tribes deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to a State, such notification taking effect only after it is laid before both Houses of Parliament
Q23. The election of representatives of a State to the Rajya Sabha, by the elected members of that State's Legislative Assembly, is conducted under the superintendence, direction and control of which one of the following?
- A. The Election Commission of India, which oversees the electoral process for both Houses of Parliament
- B. The Rajya Sabha Secretariat, acting solely under the direction of the Chairman of the Council of States
- C. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs, which exclusively coordinates all parliamentary elections for the Union
- D. The State Election Commission concerned, which alone conducts every election held within the territory of that State
Q24. Consider the following statements comparing the Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019 with the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023:
1. Unlike the 2019 Bill, the 2023 Act does not create a distinct category of sensitive personal data attracting stricter obligations.
2. The right to data portability and the right to be forgotten, which figured in the 2019 Bill, were not retained in the 2023 Act.
3. Unlike the 2019 Bill, the 2023 Act extends its coverage to non-personal and anonymised data as well.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- Unlike the 2019 Bill, the 2023 Act does not create a distinct category of sensitive personal data attracting stricter obligations.
- The right to data portability and the right to be forgotten, which figured in the 2019 Bill, were not retained in the 2023 Act.
- Unlike the 2019 Bill, the 2023 Act extends its coverage to non-personal and anonymised data as well.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 1 and 3 only
- C. 2 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q25. Consider the following statements comparing Article 19 with Article 21 of the Constitution of India:
1. The freedoms under Article 19(1) are guaranteed to citizens, whereas the protection of life and personal liberty under Article 21 is available to all persons.
2. Article 19(2) enumerates specified grounds — such as public order, decency or morality, contempt of court and incitement to an offence — on which the freedom of speech and expression may be restricted.
3. Article 21 likewise enumerates the specified grounds on which personal liberty may be curtailed by the State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The freedoms under Article 19(1) are guaranteed to citizens, whereas the protection of life and personal liberty under Article 21 is available to all persons.
- Article 19(2) enumerates specified grounds — such as public order, decency or morality, contempt of court and incitement to an offence — on which the freedom of speech and expression may be restricted.
- Article 21 likewise enumerates the specified grounds on which personal liberty may be curtailed by the State.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the digital initiatives of the National Crime Records Bureau:
1. The Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems (CCTNS) networks police stations with higher police offices, and by early 2020 had networked over 15,000 police stations.
2. The Crime Multi Agency Centre (Cri-MAC) was launched for sharing information on heinous crime and inter-State coordination, while the National Cybercrime Training Centre was launched to provide large-scale eLearning on cybercrime investigation to police officers, judges and prosecutors.
3. Cri-MAC and the National Cybercrime Training Centre were both launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology rather than by the National Crime Records Bureau.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems (CCTNS) networks police stations with higher police offices, and by early 2020 had networked over 15,000 police stations.
- The Crime Multi Agency Centre (Cri-MAC) was launched for sharing information on heinous crime and inter-State coordination, while the National Cybercrime Training Centre was launched to provide large-scale eLearning on cybercrime investigation to police officers, judges and prosecutors.
- Cri-MAC and the National Cybercrime Training Centre were both launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology rather than by the National Crime Records Bureau.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1 and 3 only
Q27. The petition moved in the Supreme Court in July 2026 against Delhi Police's facial-recognition-based surveillance of protesters rests principally on the three-part test of legality, legitimate aim and proportionality laid down in which one of the following judgments?
- A. Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh, concerning police surveillance and domiciliary visits
- B. People's Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India, concerning interception of telephone communications
- C. K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India, concerning the constitutional status of privacy
- D. Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India, concerning restrictions on internet and movement
Q28. Consider the following statements comparing the Automated Facial Recognition System (AFRS) with the National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS):
1. AFRS is designed to identify persons from facial images and is intended to help identify criminals, unidentified dead bodies and missing or found persons, whereas NAFIS is a searchable national repository of criminal fingerprint records.
2. Both AFRS and NAFIS are projects of the National Crime Records Bureau, which functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
3. Unlike AFRS, NAFIS has been confined to the Central Finger Print Bureau and has not been extended to State fingerprint bureaux or district-level units.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- AFRS is designed to identify persons from facial images and is intended to help identify criminals, unidentified dead bodies and missing or found persons, whereas NAFIS is a searchable national repository of criminal fingerprint records.
- Both AFRS and NAFIS are projects of the National Crime Records Bureau, which functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- Unlike AFRS, NAFIS has been confined to the Central Finger Print Bureau and has not been extended to State fingerprint bureaux or district-level units.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 1 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q29. The judgment in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India, which declared privacy to be a fundamental right, was delivered by a Bench comprising how many judges of the Supreme Court?
- A. Five judges, the minimum strength prescribed for deciding a substantial question of constitutional interpretation
- B. Seven judges, the strength constituted to reconsider earlier Bench decisions on the point
- C. Nine judges, constituted as a Bench of the Supreme Court of India
- D. Eleven judges, the largest Bench assembled by the Court in a fundamental rights matter
Q30. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which carries the prohibitory-order provision invoked in Delhi, contains how many sections?