Infrastructure MCQs for UPSC Prelims
Q1. Bharatmala Pariyojana is best described as which one of the following?
- A. An umbrella road development programme approved in 2017 covering about 34,800 km, most of it built by the National Highways Authority of India
- B. A port-led development programme approved in 2015 covering modernisation of major ports and their hinterland rail and road connectivity
- C. A programme approved in 2016 for replacing level crossings on national highways with railway over-bridges and under-bridges
- D. A multi-modal connectivity master plan approved in 2021 that digitally integrates infrastructure projects of sixteen union ministries
Q2. Which one of the following pairs of airports was the first to be transferred to private consortia under Operation, Management and Development Agreements in India?
- A. Cochin and Kannur
- B. Bengaluru and Hyderabad
- C. Delhi and Mumbai
- D. Ahmedabad and Lucknow
Q3. Following the Union Cabinet's 2019 approval, the six Airports Authority of India airports awarded to Adani Enterprises Limited were leased out for a period of how many years?
- A. 30 years
- B. 40 years
- C. 50 years
- D. 60 years
Q4. The final assembly line for the E175 jet proposed under the Adani Defence and Aerospace–Embraer memorandum of understanding is intended to serve which one of the following?
- A. India's Regional Transport Aircraft programme
- B. The Regional Connectivity Scheme operated by the civil aviation ministry
- C. The Regional Air Cargo Development initiative of the aviation ministry
- D. The Regional Maintenance, Repair and Overhaul policy for civil aircraft
Q5. As stated by the Ministry of Civil Aviation, how many airports in India are operating under the Public-Private Partnership model?
Q6. Consider the following statements comparing the older Delhi/Mumbai concessions with the newer Jewar and Navi Mumbai concessions:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The Delhi and Mumbai caps were embedded in Operation, Management and Development Agreements executed when those two airports were handed over to private consortia in 2006, whereas the 26 per cent ceiling appears in the later Noida and Navi Mumbai concessions.
- Altering the Delhi and Mumbai ceiling would require a supplemental agreement negotiated with the Airports Authority of India in its capacity as grantor of those concessions.
- The 10 per cent ceiling at Delhi and Mumbai limits the airport operator's stake in an airline, while the 26 per cent ceiling at Jewar limits the stake airlines may hold in the airport operator.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q7. With reference to the cross-ownership restrictions between airport operators and airlines currently under examination by the Government of India, consider the following:
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- Under the Delhi and Mumbai concession agreements, the aggregate shareholding of scheduled airlines in the airport operator is capped at 10 per cent.
- The Noida International (Jewar) and Navi Mumbai concessions permit the airport operator to hold up to 26 per cent in an airline.
- The restriction applies uniformly to every airport in the country irrespective of its ownership pattern, because it is contained in the parent civil aviation statute.
- Any relaxation of the cap can be given effect by the Ministry of Civil Aviation alone, since concession terms lie entirely within its administrative discretion.
- A. 1 and 2
- B. 2 and 3
- C. 1, 2 and 4
- D. 1, 3 and 4
Q8. The erstwhile Ministry of Shipping was renamed the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways in which year?
- A. 2014
- B. 2019
- C. 2020
- D. 2021
Q9. The Sagarmala Programme of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways is best described as a programme for:
- A. constructing a dedicated network of national highways connecting all major ports of India
- B. developing India's inland waterways as National Waterways under a statutory authority
- C. 'port-led development' through port modernisation, port connectivity and port-linked industrialisation
- D. maritime security surveillance and coastal defence of India's exclusive economic zone
Q10. The proposed dry-port site at Chityal (Nalgonda), Telangana, is anchored to an industrial estate developed by which one of the following agencies?
- A. Andhra Pradesh Industrial Infrastructure Corporation (APIIC)
- B. Telangana State Industrial Infrastructure Corporation (TSIIC)
- C. State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu (SIPCOT)
- D. Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation (TIDCO)
Q11. Which one of the following best describes the defining locational characteristic of a 'dry port' such as those proposed at Sri City and Chityala?
- A. A facility that must always be situated within the premises of a coastal seaport
- B. A node that exclusively handles domestic coastal cargo and never EXIM trade
- C. A warehousing zone that necessarily operates entirely outside any customs control
- D. An inland logistics node, away from the coast, that provides seaport-equivalent customs clearance for EXIM cargo
Q12. According to the Union Minister's July 2026 Lok Sabha reply, how many dry-port proposals — including Sri City and Chityala — are currently under active consideration by the Inter-Ministerial Committee?
- A. Eight
- B. Nine
- C. Seventeen
- D. Twenty-one
Q13. With reference to the Union Minister's July 2026 Lok Sabha reply on dry ports, consider the following statements:
1. As of the reply, the IMC had already approved eight dry-port proposals.
2. Fatehpur (Telangana) is among the dry ports already approved by the IMC.
3. Sri City and Chityala have already been approved by the IMC as dry ports.
4. Nine further proposals, including Sri City and Chityala, are under active consideration.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
- As of the reply, the IMC had already approved eight dry-port proposals.
- Fatehpur (Telangana) is among the dry ports already approved by the IMC.
- Sri City and Chityala have already been approved by the IMC as dry ports.
- Nine further proposals, including Sri City and Chityala, are under active consideration.
- A. 1 and 2
- B. 3 only
- C. 3 and 4
- D. 2 only
Q14. In the context of setting up dry ports, the description of the Inter-Ministerial Committee as a 'single-window clearance mechanism' most precisely means that:
- A. proposals to set up ICDs/CFSs/AFSs are cleared through one consolidated inter-ministerial approval process instead of separate sanctions obtained from each ministry individually
- B. the Department of Commerce alone grants final approval to dry-port proposals without consulting any other ministry
- C. all customs clearance of EXIM cargo at the dry port is carried out at a single physical counter
- D. each proposal must obtain separate clearance windows from Commerce, Revenue and Railways in sequence
Q15. The Inter-Ministerial Committee (IMC) that acts as a single-window for approving ICD/CFS/AFS proposals includes representatives of which of the following? Consider the following:
1. Department of Revenue (Customs), Ministry of Finance
2. Railway Board
3. Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
4. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Which of the above are correctly identified as being represented on the IMC?
- Department of Revenue (Customs), Ministry of Finance
- Railway Board
- Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
- Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- A. 1, 2 and 4
- B. 2, 3 and 4
- C. 1, 2 and 3
- D. 1, 3 and 4
Q16. With reference to Inland Container Depots (ICDs)/dry ports in India, consider the following statements:
1. An ICD is an inland facility that handles customs clearance of import/export containers under Customs control.
2. A Container Freight Station is located in close proximity to a gateway seaport, whereas an ICD is typically located in the interior and is rail-linked to the seaport.
3. An ICD exclusively handles empty containers and cannot store laden cargo.
4. Cargo once cleared at an ICD must necessarily undergo full customs examination again at the gateway seaport before export.
Which of the statements given above is/are correctly identified?
- An ICD is an inland facility that handles customs clearance of import/export containers under Customs control.
- A Container Freight Station is located in close proximity to a gateway seaport, whereas an ICD is typically located in the interior and is rail-linked to the seaport.
- An ICD exclusively handles empty containers and cannot store laden cargo.
- Cargo once cleared at an ICD must necessarily undergo full customs examination again at the gateway seaport before export.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1, 3 and 4
- D. 1 and 4 only
Q17. A Container Freight Station (CFS) — a facility closely related to an inland dry port — is a Customs area notified under which one of the following provisions of the Customs Act, 1962?
- A. Section 7
- B. Section 45
- C. Section 8
- D. Section 58
Q18. Consider the following statements comparing India's urban transport policy instruments:
1. The National Urban Transport Policy was adopted in 2006, whereas the Metro Rail Policy was adopted in 2017.
2. The National Urban Transport Policy, 2006 recommended setting up a Unified Metropolitan Transport Authority (UMTA) in every million-plus city.
3. The National Urban Transport Policy, 2006 accorded priority to the movement of vehicles rather than the movement of people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The National Urban Transport Policy was adopted in 2006, whereas the Metro Rail Policy was adopted in 2017.
- The National Urban Transport Policy, 2006 recommended setting up a Unified Metropolitan Transport Authority (UMTA) in every million-plus city.
- The National Urban Transport Policy, 2006 accorded priority to the movement of vehicles rather than the movement of people.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q19. India's largest operational metro network — that of the National Capital — is constructed and operated by which one of the following organisations?
- A. Delhi Metro Rail Corporation
- B. National Capital Region Transport Corporation
- C. Rail India Technical and Economic Service (RITES)
- D. Delhi Transport Corporation
Q20. Consider the following statements about Coimbatore and Madurai in the Metro Rail context:
1. As assessed under the 2011 Census, both Coimbatore and Madurai fell short of the ~20-lakh population benchmark for Metro eligibility.
2. Coimbatore's 2011 Census population was higher than that of Madurai.
3. Madurai's own Comprehensive Mobility Plan had earlier recommended a Metro Rail system in preference to a BRTS.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- As assessed under the 2011 Census, both Coimbatore and Madurai fell short of the ~20-lakh population benchmark for Metro eligibility.
- Coimbatore's 2011 Census population was higher than that of Madurai.
- Madurai's own Comprehensive Mobility Plan had earlier recommended a Metro Rail system in preference to a BRTS.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q21. As assessed by MoHUA on the basis of the 2011 Census, how many of the two Tamil Nadu cities in the rejected proposals met the ~20-lakh population benchmark for Metro Rail eligibility?
- A. None of the two
- B. Only one of the two
- C. Both of the two
- D. The benchmark does not apply to either
Q22. Among the routes to Central assistance offered under the Metro Rail Policy, 2017, which one entails the largest financial contribution from the Union government as a share of project cost?
- A. The 50:50 equity-sharing model between the Centre and the State
- B. The lump-sum grant equal to 10% of project cost
- C. The Public-Private Partnership route with Viability Gap Funding
- D. An Engineering-Procurement-Construction contract funded wholly by the State
Q23. The appraisal of metro rail proposals and the release of Central financial assistance for urban mass-transit projects are handled by which one of the following Union ministries?
- A. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
- B. Ministry of Railways
- C. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
- D. Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
Q24. Regarding the sequence of events in the Coimbatore–Madurai Metro Rail episode, consider the following:
1. The Centre first rejected the Coimbatore and Madurai Metro proposals in November 2025.
2. Tamil Nadu re-submitted its justifications for the two Metro projects in May 2026.
3. MoHUA communicated a second rejection of the proposals in July 2026.
4. In its second rejection, MoHUA recommended a monorail system in place of Metro Rail.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- The Centre first rejected the Coimbatore and Madurai Metro proposals in November 2025.
- Tamil Nadu re-submitted its justifications for the two Metro projects in May 2026.
- MoHUA communicated a second rejection of the proposals in July 2026.
- In its second rejection, MoHUA recommended a monorail system in place of Metro Rail.
- A. 1, 2 and 3
- B. 1 and 4 only
- C. 2, 3 and 4
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q25. In the context of the Coimbatore and Madurai proposals returned by MoHUA, a 'Detailed Project Report (DPR)' most precisely refers to which one of the following?
- A. A comprehensive techno-economic and engineering blueprint of a project, prepared and appraised before it is sanctioned for funding
- B. A preliminary feasibility note prepared only to decide whether a full study should be commissioned
- C. An annual physical-and-financial progress report submitted while the project is under construction
- D. A post-completion performance audit prepared after the project is commissioned
Q26. With reference to Bus Rapid Transit Systems (BRTS) and Metro Rail as urban mass-transit modes, consider the following:
1. A comprehensive bus-based transit system typically costs of the order of one-tenth of a metro rail system of comparable coverage.
2. A metro rail system generally offers a higher peak carrying capacity than a Bus Rapid Transit System.
3. A Bus Rapid Transit System can be developed either elevated or at grade along existing road corridors.
4. Unlike a metro, a Bus Rapid Transit System necessarily requires an exclusive underground tunnel alignment.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- A comprehensive bus-based transit system typically costs of the order of one-tenth of a metro rail system of comparable coverage.
- A metro rail system generally offers a higher peak carrying capacity than a Bus Rapid Transit System.
- A Bus Rapid Transit System can be developed either elevated or at grade along existing road corridors.
- Unlike a metro, a Bus Rapid Transit System necessarily requires an exclusive underground tunnel alignment.
- A. 1 and 3 only
- B. 1, 2 and 3
- C. 2 and 4 only
- D. 1, 2 and 4
Q27. According to public-transport cost assessments, a comprehensive bus-based rapid transit system costs approximately what fraction of an equivalent metro rail system?
- A. About one-half
- B. About one-third
- C. About one-tenth
- D. Roughly the same
Q28. Under the Metro Rail Policy, 2017, a State seeking Central financial assistance for a metro project may avail it through how many alternative funding options?
- A. Two
- B. Three
- C. Four
- D. Five
Q29. The Metro Rail Policy, 2017 — which lays down the population and financial-viability norms invoked while returning the Coimbatore and Madurai proposals — was formally approved by which one of the following?
- A. The Union Cabinet
- B. The NITI Aayog Governing Council
- C. The National Development Council
- D. The Central Advisory Board on Urban Transport
Q30. The Ballari–Chikjajur doubling (185 km) and the Koderma–Barkakana doubling (133 km) were cleared together by the Cabinet in which year?
- A. 2023
- B. 2024
- C. 2025
- D. 2026