International Relations MCQs for UPSC Prelims

Q1. Consider the following statements comparing the major theoretical traditions in International Relations: 1. Neorealism, unlike classical realism, explains the behaviour of great powers primarily by the anarchical structure of the international system rather than by the propensity of political leaders to seek power. 2. Constructivism, unlike neorealism, treats anarchy as a social construct whose meaning is shaped by interaction among states, so that self-help is not its only possible outcome. 3. Liberal internationalism, unlike constructivism, denies any role to international institutions and treats the use of force as the ordinary first instrument of statecraft. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Neorealism, unlike classical realism, explains the behaviour of great powers primarily by the anarchical structure of the international system rather than by the propensity of political leaders to seek power.
  2. Constructivism, unlike neorealism, treats anarchy as a social construct whose meaning is shaped by interaction among states, so that self-help is not its only possible outcome.
  3. Liberal internationalism, unlike constructivism, denies any role to international institutions and treats the use of force as the ordinary first instrument of statecraft.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q2. After the June 2025 strikes on the Fordow, Natanz and Isfahan facilities, the official who briefed the Security Council that the attacks had caused 'a sharp degradation in nuclear safety and security' and demanded that inspectors be allowed to account for the 400 kg of uranium enriched to 60 per cent did so as the head of which body?

  • A. The Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization
  • B. The Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons
  • C. The International Atomic Energy Agency
  • D. The United Nations Office for Disarmament Affairs

Q3. Consider the following statements about India's officially articulated foreign policy doctrine of strategic autonomy: 1. India simultaneously maintains deeper and more structured partnerships with the United States, Russia, France and Saudi Arabia, reflecting a multi-alignment approach. 2. Strategic autonomy requires India to remain outside all plurilateral and minilateral groupings that involve major powers. 3. India-United States bilateral relations are officially characterised as a 'global strategic partnership' resting on shared democratic values and converging interests. 4. Strategic autonomy, as officially articulated, means that India has permanently discontinued development partnerships, financial aid and capacity building with countries of the Global South. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. India simultaneously maintains deeper and more structured partnerships with the United States, Russia, France and Saudi Arabia, reflecting a multi-alignment approach.
  2. Strategic autonomy requires India to remain outside all plurilateral and minilateral groupings that involve major powers.
  3. India-United States bilateral relations are officially characterised as a 'global strategic partnership' resting on shared democratic values and converging interests.
  4. Strategic autonomy, as officially articulated, means that India has permanently discontinued development partnerships, financial aid and capacity building with countries of the Global South.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 3 only
  • D. 2, 3 and 4

Q4. The New York Declaration, endorsed by the UN General Assembly in September 2025 as a roadmap to a two-State solution, was the outcome document of a high-level international conference held at UN Headquarters in July 2025. That conference was organised by which one of the following pairs of States?

  • A. Norway and Qatar
  • B. France and Saudi Arabia
  • C. Egypt and Spain
  • D. Ireland and Türkiye

Q5. Within India's Ministry of External Affairs, which one of the following divisions is the principal recipient of foreign policy inputs from the media and the chief source of dissemination of information on India's foreign policy objectives and measures?

  • A. The Policy Planning and Research Division of the Ministry
  • B. The Development Partnership Administration of the Ministry
  • C. The External Publicity and Public Diplomacy Division of the Ministry
  • D. The Consular, Passport and Visa Division of the Ministry

Q6. On 12 June 2025 the UN General Assembly adopted a resolution demanding an immediate, unconditional and lasting ceasefire in Gaza, the release of all hostages and the lifting of restrictions on humanitarian aid. How many Member States voted in favour of that resolution?

  • A. 138
  • B. 142
  • C. 149
  • D. 153

Q7. The United Nations Ethics Office states that it delivers its mandate through a defined set of strategic functions, which include advice, ethics training and coherence of standards across the UN system. How many such strategic functions are there in all?

  • A. Three
  • B. Four
  • C. Five
  • D. Six

Q8. Within the United Nations Secretariat, which one of the following bodies is mandated to administer the financial disclosure programme and protection against retaliation, and to foster a culture of integrity, transparency and accountability consistent with the Standards of Conduct for the International Civil Service?

  • A. The United Nations Ethics Office of the Secretariat
  • B. The Office of Internal Oversight Services of the Secretariat
  • C. The Office of the United Nations Ombudsman and Mediation Services
  • D. The Joint Inspection Unit of the United Nations system

Q9. With reference to Stanley Hoffmann and his critique of International Relations as a discipline, consider the following: 1. His 1977 essay argued that the discipline's theoretical core emerged from US-specific institutional and political conditions after the Second World War, embedding a particular worldview into supposedly universal theory. 2. His 1981 work Duties Beyond Borders applied ethical and moral-psychology frameworks to international relations. 3. He authored Theory of International Politics (1979), which explained the actions of great powers solely in terms of the anarchical structure of the international system. 4. He authored 'Anarchy Is What States Make of It: The Social Construction of Power Politics' (1992), the founding statement of constructivism in IR. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. His 1977 essay argued that the discipline's theoretical core emerged from US-specific institutional and political conditions after the Second World War, embedding a particular worldview into supposedly universal theory.
  2. His 1981 work Duties Beyond Borders applied ethical and moral-psychology frameworks to international relations.
  3. He authored Theory of International Politics (1979), which explained the actions of great powers solely in terms of the anarchical structure of the international system.
  4. He authored 'Anarchy Is What States Make of It: The Social Construction of Power Politics' (1992), the founding statement of constructivism in IR.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 2 and 3
  • C. 1, 3 and 4
  • D. 3 and 4

Q10. Stanley Hoffmann's 1977 essay 'An American Social Science: International Relations', the seminal critique of the discipline's Western/US-centric theoretical core, first appeared in which one of the following journals?

  • A. Foreign Affairs, published by the Council on Foreign Relations
  • B. International Organization, published for the IO Foundation
  • C. World Politics, published by the Princeton institute
  • D. Daedalus, published by the American Academy of Arts and Sciences

Q11. Consider the following statements regarding the major power-based and norm-based approaches in International Relations theory: 1. Classical realism, as developed by Hans Morgenthau, defines the national interest in terms of power and holds that political action is governed by objective laws. 2. Kenneth Waltz's neorealism locates the causes of war in the anarchic structure of the international system rather than in the power-seeking propensities of political leaders. 3. Because anarchy is a fixed and unalterable feature of the international system, cooperative identities and interests among states are permanently impossible under all circumstances. 4. Constructivism holds that state behaviour is determined exclusively by the material distribution of capabilities, leaving no explanatory role for norms, values or identity. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. Classical realism, as developed by Hans Morgenthau, defines the national interest in terms of power and holds that political action is governed by objective laws.
  2. Kenneth Waltz's neorealism locates the causes of war in the anarchic structure of the international system rather than in the power-seeking propensities of political leaders.
  3. Because anarchy is a fixed and unalterable feature of the international system, cooperative identities and interests among states are permanently impossible under all circumstances.
  4. Constructivism holds that state behaviour is determined exclusively by the material distribution of capabilities, leaving no explanatory role for norms, values or identity.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 2 and 3
  • C. 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 3 and 4

Q12. Which one of the following is regarded as the foundational post-war statement of classical realism, defining the national interest in terms of power and holding that politics is governed by immutable objective laws rooted in human nature?

  • A. Kenneth Waltz's Theory of International Politics (1979)
  • B. Hans Morgenthau's Politics Among Nations
  • C. Alexander Wendt's 'Anarchy Is What States Make of It' (1992)
  • D. Stanley Hoffmann's Duties Beyond Borders (1981)

Q13. How many Central Reserve Police Force personnel were killed in the suicide bombing of a convoy at Pulwama on 14 February 2019?

  • A. 26
  • B. 40
  • C. 12
  • D. 44

Q14. 'The Resistance Front', invoked by India in the context of the April 2025 Pahalgam attack, is best described as which one of the following?

  • A. A terrorist outfit linked to Lashkar-e-Taiba, blamed by India along with Pakistan's deep state
  • B. A political alliance that contests every seat in the Pakistan-occupied Kashmir assembly elections
  • C. A students' body that led all the mass protests recorded across Pakistan-occupied Kashmir
  • D. A media network that exclusively runs Pakistan's social-media campaigns targeting Indian youth

Q15. Which one of the following most precisely describes India's stated position that 'terrorism and talks cannot go together', as applied to Pakistan after the Pahalgam attack?

  • A. No dialogue with Pakistan is possible unless it acts against cross-border terrorism emanating from territory under its control
  • B. Dialogue with Pakistan may continue on terrorism alone, while all other bilateral subjects stand suspended till attacks cease
  • C. Dialogue with Pakistan is possible only when mediated by a third country that certifies an end to cross-border attacks
  • D. Dialogue with Pakistan stands suspended only for the duration of any ongoing military operation launched in response

Q16. As reiterated by the Ministry of External Affairs, the principal target of India's military response to cross-border terrorism is stated to be which one of the following?

  • A. Terrorist infrastructure, against which India asserts every right to defend itself
  • B. The entire military command structure of Pakistan, without any exception
  • C. All Pakistani naval assets deployed in the Arabian Sea, without exception
  • D. Every airbase maintained by Pakistan in its Punjab province, in their entirety

Q17. Which of the following are correctly identified as positions articulated by the Ministry of External Affairs in its official briefing of 28 July 2026? 1. The people of India, including Gen Z, have been demanding that Pakistani state-sponsored cross-border terrorism must come to an end. 2. The legislative assembly elections in Pakistan-occupied Kashmir are a 'cosmetic electoral exercise' meant to camouflage illegal occupation. 3. The mass protests in Pakistan-occupied Kashmir are a direct consequence of Islamabad's decades-long systemic economic exploitation and denial of fundamental rights. 4. Twenty-three Pakistan-based individuals belonging to Jaish-e-Mohammad and Lashkar-e-Taiba stand designated as terrorists under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. The people of India, including Gen Z, have been demanding that Pakistani state-sponsored cross-border terrorism must come to an end.
  2. The legislative assembly elections in Pakistan-occupied Kashmir are a 'cosmetic electoral exercise' meant to camouflage illegal occupation.
  3. The mass protests in Pakistan-occupied Kashmir are a direct consequence of Islamabad's decades-long systemic economic exploitation and denial of fundamental rights.
  4. Twenty-three Pakistan-based individuals belonging to Jaish-e-Mohammad and Lashkar-e-Taiba stand designated as terrorists under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1 and 4 only

Q18. The comparative country-wise seafarer supply and demand estimates on the basis of which India's rank moved from fifth in 2015 to second in 2026 are published under the authority of:

  • A. The International Labour Organization, the single body with which every seafarer is registered under the Maritime Labour Convention
  • B. The International Maritime Organization alone, which directly certifies all of the world's serving seafarers
  • C. BIMCO jointly with the International Chamber of Shipping, in their periodic Seafarer Workforce Report
  • D. UNCTAD, whose Review of Maritime Transport enumerates all crew serving on every flagged vessel

Q19. With reference to the 2026 United States–Iran conflict, consider the following: 1. Large-scale United States and Israeli strikes on Iranian missiles, air defences and military leadership began on 28 February 2026. 2. In April 2026 the United States announced a naval blockade on shipping entering or leaving the Strait of Hormuz. 3. A memorandum of understanding announced in June 2026 was intended to bring the conflict to a formal end within sixty days of its signing. 4. The strikes on the underground enrichment sites at Fordow, Natanz and Isfahan using GBU-57 bunker-buster bombs were carried out in February 2026 at the opening of this conflict. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Large-scale United States and Israeli strikes on Iranian missiles, air defences and military leadership began on 28 February 2026.
  2. In April 2026 the United States announced a naval blockade on shipping entering or leaving the Strait of Hormuz.
  3. A memorandum of understanding announced in June 2026 was intended to bring the conflict to a formal end within sixty days of its signing.
  4. The strikes on the underground enrichment sites at Fordow, Natanz and Isfahan using GBU-57 bunker-buster bombs were carried out in February 2026 at the opening of this conflict.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1 and 4 only

Q20. Consider the following statements about Saudi Arabia's Vision 2030 and its energy strategy: 1. Vision 2030 was launched in 2016 as a blueprint to diversify the Saudi economy and reduce its dependence on fossil fuels. 2. The National Renewable Energy Programme, launched in 2017, envisages a power system based on roughly half renewables and half natural gas by 2030. 3. As of 2022, renewable sources already accounted for close to one-third of Saudi Arabia's electricity generation. 4. Riyadh's interest in nuclear power arises chiefly from the absence of exploitable uranium within the kingdom, a gap the 2026 pact is meant to fill. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. Vision 2030 was launched in 2016 as a blueprint to diversify the Saudi economy and reduce its dependence on fossil fuels.
  2. The National Renewable Energy Programme, launched in 2017, envisages a power system based on roughly half renewables and half natural gas by 2030.
  3. As of 2022, renewable sources already accounted for close to one-third of Saudi Arabia's electricity generation.
  4. Riyadh's interest in nuclear power arises chiefly from the absence of exploitable uranium within the kingdom, a gap the 2026 pact is meant to fill.
  • A. 3 and 4
  • B. 1 and 2
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 4 only

Q21. Consider the following statements about the nuclear non-proliferation framework: 1. The NPT recognises an inalienable right of parties to develop research, production and use of nuclear energy for peaceful purposes. 2. IAEA safeguards are to be implemented in a manner that avoids hampering the economic or technological development of the parties. 3. The Additional Protocol is a mandatory annexure to the NPT and enters into force for a State party automatically upon its ratification of the Treaty. 4. The Nuclear Suppliers Group is an organ established under the NPT and is mandated to enforce safeguards agreements. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The NPT recognises an inalienable right of parties to develop research, production and use of nuclear energy for peaceful purposes.
  2. IAEA safeguards are to be implemented in a manner that avoids hampering the economic or technological development of the parties.
  3. The Additional Protocol is a mandatory annexure to the NPT and enters into force for a State party automatically upon its ratification of the Treaty.
  4. The Nuclear Suppliers Group is an organ established under the NPT and is mandated to enforce safeguards agreements.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 3 and 4
  • D. 2, 3 and 4

Q22. Under the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, a non-nuclear-weapon State party is obliged to conclude a comprehensive safeguards agreement with which one of the following?

  • A. The Nuclear Suppliers Group
  • B. The International Atomic Energy Agency
  • C. The Conference on Disarmament
  • D. The Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization

Q23. The United States domestic legislation that enabled Washington to pursue civil nuclear cooperation with India notwithstanding India's non-adherence to the NPT is:

  • A. The Nuclear Non-Proliferation Act of 1978, which tightened US export conditions
  • B. Section 123 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, which by itself authorises cooperation with any state
  • C. The Arms Export Control Act of 1976, as subsequently amended
  • D. The Henry J. Hyde US–India Peaceful Atomic Energy Cooperation Act

Q24. The 'India-specific exemption' worked out by the Nuclear Suppliers Group in 2008 is best described as which one of the following?

  • A. The admission of India to the Nuclear Suppliers Group, conditional upon accession to the NPT as a non-nuclear-weapon state
  • B. A relaxation of the Group's guidelines permitting civil nuclear trade with India, which opened only its civilian reactors to the IAEA
  • C. A dispensation allowing India to keep all of its reactors outside IAEA safeguards for an initial period of thirty years
  • D. A permission for India to reprocess spent fuel of foreign origin at any facility of its choice without safeguards coverage

Q25. Consider the following about accessions to the Abraham Accords: 1. The United Arab Emirates and Bahrain signed at the White House in 2020, the process having been set off by the shelving of Israel's plan to annex parts of the West Bank. 2. Morocco agreed to normalise relations in December 2020, and the United States concurrently recognised Moroccan sovereignty over Western Sahara. 3. Sudan signed the Abraham Accords Declaration in January 2021, after the United States removed it from its list of state sponsors of terrorism. 4. Saudi Arabia acceded to the Accords in November 2025, abandoning its insistence on a negotiated roadmap to Palestinian statehood. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. The United Arab Emirates and Bahrain signed at the White House in 2020, the process having been set off by the shelving of Israel's plan to annex parts of the West Bank.
  2. Morocco agreed to normalise relations in December 2020, and the United States concurrently recognised Moroccan sovereignty over Western Sahara.
  3. Sudan signed the Abraham Accords Declaration in January 2021, after the United States removed it from its list of state sponsors of terrorism.
  4. Saudi Arabia acceded to the Accords in November 2025, abandoning its insistence on a negotiated roadmap to Palestinian statehood.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 3 and 4

Q26. As of July 2026, how many countries besides Israel had joined the Abraham Accords?

  • A. Three
  • B. Four
  • C. Five
  • D. Six

Q27. With reference to the United States–Saudi Arabia civil nuclear cooperation agreement of July 2026, consider the following: 1. It was concluded under Section 123 of the US Atomic Energy Act and was accompanied by a bilateral safeguards arrangement. 2. It establishes a thirty-year framework for civil nuclear cooperation. 3. It makes entry into force of the IAEA Additional Protocol a precondition for any transfer of nuclear material to Saudi Arabia. 4. It opens a legal pathway for cooperation across the nuclear fuel cycle including uranium enrichment, with a joint study to precede any enrichment facility in the kingdom. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. It was concluded under Section 123 of the US Atomic Energy Act and was accompanied by a bilateral safeguards arrangement.
  2. It establishes a thirty-year framework for civil nuclear cooperation.
  3. It makes entry into force of the IAEA Additional Protocol a precondition for any transfer of nuclear material to Saudi Arabia.
  4. It opens a legal pathway for cooperation across the nuclear fuel cycle including uranium enrichment, with a joint study to precede any enrichment facility in the kingdom.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 4
  • D. 1, 3 and 4

Q28. In discussions of United States civil nuclear cooperation agreements, including the one concluded with Saudi Arabia in July 2026, the expression 'gold standard' denotes which one of the following?

  • A. A guarantee by the United States to supply low-enriched fuel for the operating life of the reactors it exports
  • B. A requirement that the recipient state place all of its nuclear facilities under IAEA comprehensive safeguards
  • C. A commitment by the recipient state to forgo uranium enrichment and spent-fuel reprocessing on its own soil
  • D. An undertaking by the recipient state to bring the IAEA Additional Protocol into force before any transfer

Q29. Consider the following statements regarding agreements concluded under Section 123 of the United States Atomic Energy Act: 1. The agreement takes its name from Section 123 of the Act, which governs cooperation in the peaceful uses of nuclear energy. 2. Every such agreement necessarily prohibits the partner state from carrying out uranium enrichment or spent-fuel reprocessing on its own territory. 3. Nuclear material transferred under such an agreement must be placed under safeguards and must not be diverted to military purposes. 4. Conclusion of such an agreement automatically confers membership of the Nuclear Suppliers Group upon the partner state. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The agreement takes its name from Section 123 of the Act, which governs cooperation in the peaceful uses of nuclear energy.
  2. Every such agreement necessarily prohibits the partner state from carrying out uranium enrichment or spent-fuel reprocessing on its own territory.
  3. Nuclear material transferred under such an agreement must be placed under safeguards and must not be diverted to military purposes.
  4. Conclusion of such an agreement automatically confers membership of the Nuclear Suppliers Group upon the partner state.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 1, 2 and 4
  • C. 3 only
  • D. 2 and 4

Q30. A civil nuclear cooperation agreement concluded by the United States under Section 123 of its Atomic Energy Act cannot be brought into effect by the executive branch alone. Its coming into force is contingent upon clearance by which one of the following?

  • A. The US Nuclear Regulatory Commission
  • B. The United States Congress
  • C. The IAEA Board of Governors
  • D. The Nuclear Suppliers Group plenary